2003 AIME I Problems/Problem 11: Difference between revisions
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The [[probability]] that <math>x</math> lies in this range is <math>\frac 1{45} \cdot \left(\frac 12 \arctan 2\right) = \frac{\arctan 2}{90}</math> so that <math>m = 2</math>, <math>n = 90</math> and our answer is <math>\boxed{092}</math>. | The [[probability]] that <math>x</math> lies in this range is <math>\frac 1{45} \cdot \left(\frac 12 \arctan 2\right) = \frac{\arctan 2}{90}</math> so that <math>m = 2</math>, <math>n = 90</math> and our answer is <math>\boxed{092}</math>. | ||
== Solution 2 (Complementary Counting) == | |||
We seek a complementary counting argument, where we look for the probability that <math>\sin^2 x</math>, <math>\cos^2 x</math> and <math>\sin x \cos x</math> form the side lengths of a triangle. | |||
By the triangle inequality, we must have the following three inequalities to be true: <cmath>\sin^2 x + \cos^2 x > \sin x \cos x</cmath> <cmath>\sin^2 x + \sin x \cos x > \cos^2 x</cmath> <cmath>\cos^2 x + \sin x \cos x > \sin^2 x</cmath> | |||
The first inequality will always hold since we have <math>\sin^2 x + \cos^2 x = 1</math>, and <math>1 > \sin x \cos x</math> for all <math>x</math> (The maximum value of <math>\sin x \cos x</math> is <math>\frac{1}{2}</math> when <math>\sin x = \cos x = \frac{\sqrt{2}}{2}</math>). | |||
Now, we examine the second inequality <math>\sin^2 x + \sin x \cos x > \cos^2 x</math>. If we subtract <math>\sin^2 x</math> from both sides, we have <math>\sin x \cos x > \cos^2 x - \sin^2 x</math>. Aha! This resembles our sine and cosine double angle identities. Therefore, our inequality is now <math>\sin 2x > 2\cos 2x</math>. We can divide both sides by <math>\cos 2x</math> and we have <math>\tan 2x > 2</math>. The solutions to this occur when <math>45 \geq x > \frac{\arctan 2}{2}</math>. | |||
(To understand why it must be <math>x ></math>, we can draw the unit circle, and notice as x moves from <math>\frac{\arctan 2}{2}</math> to <math>90</math>, <math>\tan x</math> approaches <math>\infty</math>. We must cap <math>x</math> at <math>45</math>, since if <math>x > 45</math>, <math>2x > 90</math>, and <math>\tan x</math> will be negative.) | |||
Next, we examine the third inequality, <math>\cos^2 x + \sin x \cos x > \sin^2 x</math>. Once again, we can get our double angle identities for sine and cosine by subtracting <math>\cos^2 2x</math> from both sides. We have, <math>\sin x \cos x > \sin^2 x -\cos^2 x \to \sin 2x > -2\cos 2x</math>. | |||
Next, we again, divide by <math>\cos 2x</math> to produce a <math>\tan 2x</math> (we do this because one trig function is easier to deal with than 2). However, if <math>\cos 2x > 0</math>, we do not need to flip the sign since <math>\sin 2x >0</math>, and so if <math>\cos 2x >0</math>, all values for which that is true satisfy the inequality. So we only consider if <math>\cos 2x < 0</math>, and when we divide by a negative, we must flip the sign. Thus we have <math>\tan 2x < -2</math>. | |||
We can take the <math>\arctan</math> of both sides, and we have <math>\frac{\arctan -2}{2}> x \geq 45</math>. Once again, to better understand this, we can draw the angle <math>x</math> for which <math>\tan 2x = -2</math>, and we notice as <math>2x</math> moves to <math>x=90</math>, <math>\tan 2x</math> approaches <math>- \infty</math>. We must cap <math>x</math> at <math>45</math> since if <math>x<45</math>, we have <math>\tan 2x > 0</math>. | |||
Notice that if we draw the terminal points for <math>\frac{\arctan 2}{2}</math> and <math>\frac{\arctan -2}{2}</math>, they have the same smaller angle with the x and y axis respectively. This means the range of degree measures for which our inequalities hold is <math>90 - \frac{\arctan 2}{2} > x > \frac{\arctan 2}{2}</math> which has an area of <math>90 - \arctan 2</math>. However, we want the complement of this, which has an area of <math>90 - (90 - \arctan 2) = \arctan 2</math>. Therefore, the desired probability is <math>\frac{\arctan2}{90}</math>, and so <math>m+n=2+90=92</math>. | |||
-BossLu99 | |||
== See also == | == See also == | ||
Latest revision as of 14:24, 21 June 2024
Problem
An angle
is chosen at random from the interval
Let
be the probability that the numbers
and
are not the lengths of the sides of a triangle. Given that
where
is the number of degrees in
and
and
are positive integers with
find
Solution
Note that the three expressions are symmetric with respect to interchanging
and
, and so the probability is symmetric around
. Thus, take
so that
. Then
is the largest of the three given expressions and those three lengths not forming a triangle is equivalent to a violation of the triangle inequality
This is equivalent to
and, using some of our trigonometric identities, we can re-write this as
. Since we've chosen
,
so
The probability that
lies in this range is
so that
,
and our answer is
.
Solution 2 (Complementary Counting)
We seek a complementary counting argument, where we look for the probability that
,
and
form the side lengths of a triangle.
By the triangle inequality, we must have the following three inequalities to be true:
The first inequality will always hold since we have
, and
for all
(The maximum value of
is
when
).
Now, we examine the second inequality
. If we subtract
from both sides, we have
. Aha! This resembles our sine and cosine double angle identities. Therefore, our inequality is now
. We can divide both sides by
and we have
. The solutions to this occur when
.
(To understand why it must be
, we can draw the unit circle, and notice as x moves from
to
,
approaches
. We must cap
at
, since if
,
, and
will be negative.)
Next, we examine the third inequality,
. Once again, we can get our double angle identities for sine and cosine by subtracting
from both sides. We have,
.
Next, we again, divide by
to produce a
(we do this because one trig function is easier to deal with than 2). However, if
, we do not need to flip the sign since
, and so if
, all values for which that is true satisfy the inequality. So we only consider if
, and when we divide by a negative, we must flip the sign. Thus we have
.
We can take the
of both sides, and we have
. Once again, to better understand this, we can draw the angle
for which
, and we notice as
moves to
,
approaches
. We must cap
at
since if
, we have
.
Notice that if we draw the terminal points for
and
, they have the same smaller angle with the x and y axis respectively. This means the range of degree measures for which our inequalities hold is
which has an area of
. However, we want the complement of this, which has an area of
. Therefore, the desired probability is
, and so
.
-BossLu99
See also
| 2003 AIME I (Problems • Answer Key • Resources) | ||
| Preceded by Problem 10 |
Followed by Problem 12 | |
| 1 • 2 • 3 • 4 • 5 • 6 • 7 • 8 • 9 • 10 • 11 • 12 • 13 • 14 • 15 | ||
| All AIME Problems and Solutions | ||
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